200-301 CCNA · Cisco · Security Fundamentals · Bank updated 2026-09-20
200-301 CCNA practice questions: Security Fundamentals
5 free questions from 10 on this area · answer and explanation for each · no sign-up
These 5 questions come from the Security Fundamentals section of our 200-301 CCNA bank (10 questions on this area, which carries 15% of the real exam). Every question is original, with the correct answer explained and linked to the source it is drawn from.
1/5 · Security Fundamentals · easy
Several employee passwords were captured by a credential-phishing site, and the attacker reused them against the company's remote access portal within the hour. Management asks for a change that stops a captured password from being enough on its own. Which measure does that?
ARequire a set of three personal security questions to be answered after the password.
BRequire a one-time code from an authenticator app enrolled to each user after the password.
CRequire the password to be entered a second time on a separate page before the session opens.
DRequire a PIN chosen by the user at enrolment to be typed after the password.
Show answer & explanation
B is correct. Topic 5.4. Cisco defines multi-factor authentication as a security method that requires users to verify their identity with two or more independent forms of evidence before access is granted, drawn from the categories something the user knows (password or PIN), something the user has (smartphone or security key) and something the user is (fingerprint or face scan), and states that even if a password is stolen, an attacker cannot complete the login without the additional factor. The word that decides this item is independent: an extra prompt that asks for another remembered secret stays inside the first category, so one phishing page can harvest both halves in a single sitting. Length, complexity and rotation are password management controls that raise the cost of guessing; they do not change what happens once the password itself has been handed to an attacker.
↗ Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 Exam Topics — Section 5: Security Fundamentals
2/5 · Security Fundamentals
An internal report closes an incident on a file server. The server ran a version of a service with a flaw that allowed remote code execution; a criminal group is known to scan the Internet for that service; working attack code for the flaw was used against the server last Tuesday; and the team has since installed the vendor patch. Which statement about the server's position now matches the definitions in RFC 4949?
AThe vulnerability is gone and the threat remains, and the risk is unchanged while the group keeps scanning.
BThe vulnerability is gone and the threat remains, and the risk is reduced but not removed by the patch.
CThe vulnerability is gone and the threat remains, and with no vulnerability there is no implied risk.
DThe vulnerability is gone and the threat remains, and the risk returns each time the group scans the server.
Show answer & explanation
C is correct. Topic 5.1. RFC 4949, the Internet Security Glossary, defines a vulnerability as a flaw or weakness in a system's design, implementation, or operation and management that could be exploited to violate the system's security policy, and a threat as a potential for violation of security, which exists when there is an entity, circumstance, capability, action, or event that could cause harm. The two are independent, which the glossary makes explicit with two entries: a dangling threat is a threat to a system for which there is no corresponding vulnerability and, therefore, no implied risk, and a dangling vulnerability is a vulnerability for which there is no corresponding threat and, therefore, no implied risk. Installing the vendor patch eliminates the flaw in the implementation, so the vulnerability is gone; the group that hunts for that service is unaffected by anything done on the server, so the threat persists with nothing left to act on, and the risk it implied goes with the flaw. The attack code itself is the exploit, the technique that turns a vulnerability into a compromise, and the patch is the countermeasure that opposes it.
↗ Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 Exam Topics — Section 5: Security Fundamentals
3/5 · Security Fundamentals
An engineer enables DHCP snooping globally and for VLAN 20 on an access switch. The DHCP server is reached through the uplink port Gi1/0/48, and no other interface configuration is changed. Immediately afterwards, no client in VLAN 20 can obtain an address, although clients could before the change. What is the cause, and what is the fix?
APorts are untrusted by default, and the fix is ip dhcp snooping trust on Gi1/0/48.
BDHCP snooping requires the server in VLAN 20, and the fix is to move it out of VLAN 10.
CClient ports must be trusted, and the fix is ip dhcp snooping trust on Gi1/0/1 to Gi1/0/47.
DThe feature's rate limit dropped the requests, and the fix is ip dhcp snooping limit rate 30.
Show answer & explanation
A is correct. Topic 5.7. Cisco describes DHCP snooping as a feature that filters untrusted DHCP messages and builds a DHCP snooping binding database, and documents that by default the switch considers all interfaces untrusted, so it must be configured to trust some interfaces. It also lists the drop conditions: a packet from a DHCP server, such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet, received on an untrusted interface is dropped. The correct design is therefore to trust only the ports toward legitimate servers or toward other switches, and to leave user-facing ports untrusted so that a rogue server on a desk cannot answer clients.
↗ Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 Exam Topics — Section 5: Security Fundamentals
4/5 · Security Fundamentals
A regulator requires the company to be able to reconstruct, months after the fact, every change a named administrator made to the running configuration of its routers, from data held on the AAA server rather than on the device itself. The routers already check administrators against a TACACS+ server when they log in. Which additional configuration produces that data?
Aaaa accounting exec default start-stop group tacacs+
Baaa accounting commands 15 default start-stop group tacacs+
Caaa accounting commands 1 default start-stop group tacacs+
Daaa accounting network default start-stop group tacacs+
Show answer & explanation
B is correct. Topic 5.8. The AAA framework splits three questions: authentication asks who the user is, authorization asks what that user may do at the moment of each request, and accounting reports what the user actually did. Cisco states that the network access server reports user activity to the TACACS+ or RADIUS security server in the form of accounting records, and that each accounting record contains accounting attribute-value (AV) pairs and is stored on the security server. The record types differ in what they cover: EXEC accounting provides information about user EXEC terminal sessions of the network access server, carrying the username, the date, the start and stop times and the address of the access server - that is, the boundaries of the session - while command accounting provides information about the EXEC mode commands that a user issues and generates accounting records for all EXEC mode commands, including global configuration commands, associated with a specific privilege level. Network accounting covers PPP, SLIP and ARAP sessions. The start-stop form sends a notice at the beginning and at the end of the process, while stop-only sends a single notice at the end.
↗ Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 Exam Topics — Section 5: Security Fundamentals
5/5 · Security Fundamentals · hard
R1 has this configuration, and traffic from the user LAN enters GigabitEthernet0/0:
access-list 101 deny tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.2.2.50 eq 23
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.2.2.50 eq 80
access-list 101 deny ip any host 10.2.2.50
access-list 101 permit ip any any
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip access-group 101 in
A user at 10.1.1.20 opens an HTTPS session to 10.2.2.50 (TCP destination port 443). How is the first packet handled?
AIt is permitted by the final entry of the access list, a blanket permit for IP traffic.
BIt is permitted, with ports 23 and 80 the ones named anywhere in the list.
CIt is denied by the third entry, the first entry in the list that this packet matches.
DIt is denied by the implicit deny at the end, after four entries fail to match.
Show answer & explanation
C is correct. Topic 5.6. Cisco states that ACL entries are processed in order and that the first match determines whether the software accepts or rejects the packet, and that every access list ends with an implicit deny of everything not explicitly permitted. Tracing the packet (source 10.1.1.20, destination 10.2.2.50, TCP port 443): line 1 requires destination port 23, no match; line 2 requires port 80, no match; line 3 matches any IP protocol from any source to host 10.2.2.50 and denies it, so processing stops there and lines 4 and the implicit deny are never reached. The practical lesson is that a broad deny placed above a broad permit silently swallows everything the intermediate permits did not name.
↗ Cisco 200-301 CCNA v1.1 Exam Topics — Section 5: Security Fundamentals
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