PMP® · PMI · Updated September 2026
PMP® practice questions
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1/10 · People
During project execution, a project manager wants to choose a conflict resolution technique that fully addresses the underlying concerns of all parties and produces a mutually satisfactory, win-win outcome, even though it typically requires more time, openness, and trust than other techniques. Which technique BEST matches this description?
ACompromise/Reconcile
BSmooth/Accommodate
CCollaborate/Problem Solve
DWithdraw/Avoid
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2/10 · Process
A project manager is planning a project to fabricate a load-bearing bridge component. The specifications are fixed by regulation, the technology is mature, and stakeholders do not expect requirements to change during execution. Which development approach should the project manager select?
AAn adaptive (agile) approach, so the team can incorporate frequent stakeholder feedback throughout construction.
BA predictive (plan-driven) approach, because requirements are stable, well understood, and changing them would be costly.
CAn adaptive approach, because it prioritizes individuals and interactions over rigid processes.
DA hybrid approach, using short iterations for the fabrication work while keeping a rolling wave schedule.
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3/10 · Business Environment
In a traditional (predictive) project environment, which statement BEST describes the purpose of project governance as described in the PMBOK Guide – Seventh Edition?
AIt is the framework of policies, procedures, and decision-making structures that provide oversight of the project and ensure alignment with organizational objectives.
BIt is the detailed schedule and cost baseline used to calculate earned value performance indices.
CIt is the communications plan specifying how frequently the project manager reports status to the sponsor.
DIt is the set of technical engineering standards the team must follow when building product deliverables.
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4/10 · People
Two functional managers each insist that the same scarce senior database architect be assigned full time to their own initiative during the upcoming sprint, and the disagreement escalates into a heated exchange during a resource-planning meeting. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying source of this conflict?
ADiffering organizational values
BAmbiguous roles and responsibilities on the architect's home team
CResource constraints
DPersonality clash between the functional managers
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5/10 · Process
A project manager is scoping a new initiative involving several stakeholders with conflicting priorities, an unclear final product definition, and an emerging technology platform the organization has not used before. The PM must recommend a development approach to the sponsor. What should the project manager do FIRST?
ARecommend an adaptive approach immediately, since conflicting stakeholder priorities are typical of agile projects.
BEscalate the approach decision to the sponsor and let them decide based on organizational preference.
CDefault to the organization's standard predictive methodology to maintain consistency across projects.
DAssess the project's complexity and uncertainty (e.g., using a complexity model that considers requirement clarity and technology novelty) to inform the approach recommendation.
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6/10 · Business Environment
A Scrum team discovers that a critical third-party API will be deprecated in two months. Resolving this requires a costly vendor contract renegotiation that is well beyond the product owner's decision authority. As a servant leader, what should the project manager do FIRST?
ADirect the development team to build a temporary workaround so the issue never needs to be escalated.
BHold the issue until the next scheduled quarterly steering committee meeting, since escalations should follow a fixed calendar.
CContact the vendor contracting department directly, bypassing the product owner and steering committee, because the timeline is tight.
DRefer to the escalation path defined in the project's governance plan or team charter to identify the appropriate decision-maker, then raise the issue through that channel.
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7/10 · People
A newly chartered hybrid project team is struggling: members frequently talk over one another during virtual meetings, and attendance at scheduled ceremonies is inconsistent. What should the project manager do FIRST to address this?
ARemove ceremonies from the schedule since the team appears self-organizing enough not to need them
BFacilitate a session where the team collaboratively defines and commits to ground rules for meeting conduct and attendance
CEscalate the behavior pattern to each member's functional manager
DUnilaterally publish a set of meeting rules and require the team to comply
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8/10 · Process · hard
A project delivers a regulated medical device with a fixed hardware specification that cannot change once approved, alongside an embedded software component whose user interface requirements are expected to evolve based on clinician feedback during testing. Which execution strategy BEST fits this project?
ATwo separate, uncoordinated projects, one predictive and one adaptive, managed under different project charters.
BA fully predictive approach for the entire project so both hardware and software share a single integrated baseline and change control process.
CA fully adaptive approach with the hardware team working in sprints alongside the software team to maximize flexibility.
DA hybrid approach: manage the hardware workstream with predictive planning and a firm baseline, while managing the software workstream iteratively with short cycles and clinician feedback loops.
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9/10 · Business Environment
A predictive project's business case defines success as a 15% reduction in operating cost within six months of go-live, but current status reports only track schedule and cost variance against the performance measurement baseline. The sponsor asks why benefit realization isn't being reported. What should the project manager do?
AUpdate the governance/reporting framework to explicitly include the success metrics defined in the business case and align them with the project's measurement approach.
BExplain that the cost performance baseline already inherently measures benefit realization, so no further reporting is required.
CTell the sponsor that benefit tracking is solely operations' responsibility after closure and cannot be reported during execution.
DRecommend closing the project early since schedule and cost variance are within acceptable thresholds.
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10/10 · People · hard
During a live product deployment, a team member wants to pause and debate an alternative rollback procedure while a critical system outage is actively impacting customers. The project manager has authoritative knowledge of the correct emergency procedure, and there is no time for group deliberation. What should the project manager do?
ADirect the team to execute the known emergency procedure immediately, and hold a lessons-learned discussion with the team once the incident is resolved
BConvene an emergency retrospective before taking any action to build full team consensus
CWithdraw from the discussion and let the team decide autonomously
DBlend both procedures into a compromise solution to satisfy all viewpoints
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PMP® practice — FAQ
Did the PMP® exam change in 2026?
Yes — a new exam version took effect on July 9, 2026: 180 questions in 240 minutes (with two 10-minute breaks) and updated domain weights of Process 41%, People 33%, Business Environment 26%.
What is the passing score for PMP®?
PMI does not publish a numeric cut score — it's set psychometrically and can vary by exam form. Results come as performance ratings (Above Target to Needs Improvement) per domain.
How many questions is the PMP® exam and how long is it?
180 questions (170 scored, 10 unscored pretest) — multiple choice, multiple response, case/scenario sets, graphic-based, matching, point-and-click and pull-down items — in 240 minutes with two scheduled 10-minute breaks (new exam version effective July 9, 2026).
What is the passing score for PMP®?
PMI does not publish a numeric cut score — results are pass/fail with per-area performance indicators. Aim for a consistent 80–85% on realistic mocks before booking.
What is the PMP® pass rate?
PMI does not publish official pass rates, so any exact percentage quoted online is unverified. The readiness signal that actually predicts passing: consistently holding 80–85% on realistic, full-length practice exams before you book.
What are the PMP® eligibility requirements?
Four routes, all requiring 35 hours of PM training (waived if you hold an active CAPM): secondary school + 60 months, associate's level / EQF 5 + 48 months, bachelor's degree or bachelor-equivalent (EQF 6) + 36 months, or a GAC-accredited degree + 24 months. Experience must be non-overlapping and accrued in the past 10 years (July 2026 ECO).
How much does PMP® cost?
US pricing is $445 for PMI members and $675 for non-members (PMI raised fees on August 6, 2026; regional pricing varies). PMI membership is $129/year plus a one-time $10 application fee, so joining first is the cheaper route. You get up to three attempts inside the 1-year eligibility period; PMI charges a re-examination fee for the second and third — confirm the current amount at checkout.
How long should I study for PMP®?
For most candidates, commonly reported 35–120+ hours depending on PM background and prep course. What matters most is practising questions and analysing why each option is right or wrong — not just reading.
Does the PMP® certification need recertification?
60 PDUs every 3 years under PMI's Continuing Certification Requirements (CCR) program.
Are ExamDeck's PMP® questions exam dumps?
No — every question is original, written to test the concepts and reviewed before it ships, with an explanation linked to the source for every option. Dumps are stale, often wrong, and against PMI's policies.
ExamDeck is an independent study tool, not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by PMI. PMP® and related marks are trademarks of their respective owners, used for identification only. Exam facts checked against official PMI materials (as of September 2026); always confirm current details with the vendor before booking.